Dear Rabbi,
I am Sephardic by birth. My fiancé is Ashkenazi. We would like to know if there is a difference between the Sephardic custom and the Ashkenazic custom with regard to the waiting period until a married couple can have sex after the beginning of a niddah (monthly period).
Thanks, Sara
The customs should be as the husband is used to, both with regard to leniencies and stringencies - (source: "Igrot Moshe" by R' M. Feinstein, O.C. I 158).
With blessings from Jerusalem,
Rabbi Shraga Simmons
Aish.com

