Question: Why can only a man give a Get divorce paper in Judaism?
Dear Rabbi Enkin,
I have asked this question of many Rabbis. I've never gotten an answer which fails to do anything other than approximate, "Because that is the way the rule reads". So, as a last gasp, I am appealing to you for a more expanatory answer. Please, if you have time, why can ONLY a man grant a Get in Judaism? (i.e. - why is the was the rule written that way, at the time of it's writing?)
Thank you so very much. Yours truly, Allan
Answer: Dear Allan,
I really don't understand the confusion you seem to encounter with this question!
Why can only a man grant a get? The answer is so simple: because the Torah says so. Period. In fact, the Torah doesn't give a reason for this. Any suggestions that anyone offers you is merely commentary and speculation.
So here goes another one: In biblical times it was unheard of for a woman to leave a husband. Women needed men for absolutely everything back then. Perhaps therefore, a man had to be the one to grant the Get, for if a woman said she divorced a man -- nobody would believe her!
Hope this helps!
Rabbi Ari Enkin
Ramat Beit Shemesh, Israel
